honestly yes! That's also a good case for why 0^0 is equal to 1 in combinatorics.
The uniform definitions hold well for empty sums, products and sup/inf of empty set. I like thinking about that for fun sometimes
Aditya Khanna
npub10s…rcj3f
2025-06-14 16:07:46 UTC
in reply to nevent1q…h85m
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npub10s7m2y52fv422era8wrj3srf7zczw2azqzpks7l0t0ej889ymkeq0rcj3fSeen on
wss://relay.momostr.pinkPublished at
2025-06-14 16:07:46 UTCEvent JSON
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