rich1.0freeborn | ἐλεύθερος | 8r0gwg (npub1ak…r0gwg)https://yabu.me/npub1ak5kewf6anwkrt0qc8ua907ljkn7wm83e2ycyrpcumjvaf2upszs8r0gwgnjumphttps://yabu.meI see, no problem. 😏 My premise is that the moral law of God (i.e., the 10 comnandments) governs all men in all times in all places, and that for a human law to be just, it must conform to that higher law. Then, this law gets conditioned for 'when' we are in redemptive history. Now is not for theocracy. To oversimplify: the 'vertical' aspects (1-4), are not to be enforced by the State; the 'horizontal' aspects (5-9) may be; and the 10th is spiritual and cannot be. This is a very oversimplified explanation of the '2 Kingdoms' view which flows from classical Federal/Covenant Theology and its resulting amillennial eschatology. Back of each of those is a revelational epistemology. What premise do you think I should be arguing from instead? 🤙